Ralph Ellison's premise in his novel Invisible Man, first published in the early 1950's about a young black man's feelings of being invisible in New York based on his skin color, is that white dominated society renders blacks (and by association, other people of non-white skin colors) "invisible". Do you feel this is as true now as in the 1950's? Why or why not?
I feel that this is not as true now to some extent as it was in the 1950’s particularly, because the accounts offered by Ellison in his Novel, ‘Invisible ...
